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Stage II Exam - Final

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
a.
movement of air.
b.
pressure differential.
c.
heat exchange.
 

 2. 
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?
a.
Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.
b.
Frost will change the camber of the wing, increaseing its lifting capability.
c.
Frost will cause the airplane to become airborne with a higher angle of attack, decreasing the stall speed.
 

 3. 
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
a.
wind direction.
b.
type of precipitation.
c.
stability of the air mass.
 

 4. 
If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
a.
Precipitation static.
b.
Wind-shear turbulence.
c.
Steady rain.
 

 5. 
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
a.
mature stage.
b.
downdraft stage.
c.
cumulus stage.
 

 6. 
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
a.
squall line thunderstorms.
b.
steady-state thunderstorms.
c.
warm from thunderstorms.
 

 7. 
One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
a.
small temperature/dew point spread.
b.
stratiform clouds.
c.
visible moisture.
 

 8. 
An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred as
a.
an inactive frontal cloud.
b.
a funnel cloud.
c.
a lenticular cloud.
 

 9. 
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
a.
across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
b.
down a mountain valley, and the air is unstable.
c.
parallel to a mountain peak, and the air is stable.
 

 10. 
Where does wind shear occur?
a.
Only at higher altitudes.
b.
Only at lower altitudes.
c.
At all altitudes, in all directions.
 

 11. 
If the temperature/ dew point spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 degrees Fahrenheit, what type weather is most likely to develop?
a.
Freezing precipitation.
b.
Thunderstorms.
c.
Fog or low clouds.
 

 12. 
What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
a.
Towering cumulus.
b.
Cumulonimbus.
c.
Nimbostratus.
 

 13. 
At approximately what altitude above the surface the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 degrees Fahrenheit and the dew point is 38 degrees Fahrenheit?
a.
9,000 feet AGL.
b.
10,000 feet AGL.
c.
11,000 feet AGL.
 

 14. 
Clouds are divided into four families according to their
a.
outward shape.
b.
height range.
c.
composition
 

 15. 
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
a.
Showery precipitation.
b.
Turbulent air.
c.
Smooth air.
 

 16. 
When landng behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
a.
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
b.
Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
c.
Stay well below its final appraoch flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind.
 

 17. 
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
a.
a general briefing.
b.
an abbreviated briefing.
c.
a standard briefing.
 

 18. 
When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request
a.
an outlook briefing.
b.
a standard briefing.
c.
an abbreviated briefing.
 

 19. 
What are the current conditions depicted for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?
mc019-1.jpg
a.
Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, rain.
b.
Sky 7000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2 SM, heavy rain.
c.
Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2 SM, with rain.
 

 20. 
What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
mc020-1.jpg
a.
Calm.
b.
110 degrees at 12 knots, gusts 18 knots.
c.
111 degrees at 2 knots, gusts 18 knots.
 

 21. 
To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to
a.
Aviation Area Forecasts.
b.
Weather Depiction Charts.
c.
Satellite Maps.
 

 22. 
The Chicago FA forecast section is valid until the 25th at
mc022-1.jpg
a.
1945Z.
b.
0800Z.
c.
1400Z.
 

 23. 
Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?
mc023-1.jpg
a.
1/2 statute mile.
b.
3 statute miles.
c.
6 statute miles.
 

 24. 
In the TAF from KOKC, the "FM (FROM) Group" is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from
mc024-1.jpg
a.
160 degrees at 10 knots.
b.
180 degrees at 10 knots.
c.
180 degrees at 10 knots, becoming 200 degrees at 13 knots.
 

 25. 
The IFR weather in northern Texas is due to
mc025-1.jpg
a.
intermittent rains.
b.
low ceilings.
c.
dust devils.
 

 26. 
(Refer to area D) What is the direction and speed of movement of the cell?
mc026-1.jpg
a.
North at 17 knots.
b.
South at 17 knots.
c.
North at 17 MPH.
 

 27. 
What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station?
a.
Actual weather information and thunderstorm activity along the route.
b.
Preferential routing and radar vectoring to circumnavigate severe weather.
c.
Severe weather information, changes to flight plans, and receipt of routine position reports.
 

 28. 
What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
mc028-1.jpg
a.
230 degrees true at 39 knots.
b.
230 degrees true at 56 knots.
c.
230 degrees magnetic at 56 knots.
 

 29. 
What weather is forecast for the Florida area just ahead of the stationary front during the first 12 hours?
mc029-1.jpg
a.
Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with intermittent precipitation.
b.
Ceiling 1,000 to 3,000 feet and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles with continuous precipitation.
c.
Ceiling less than 1,000 feet and/or visibility less than 3 miles with continuous precipitation.
 

 30. 
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to
a.
only IFR pilots.
b.
all pilots.
c.
only VFR pilots.
 

 31. 
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
a.
Vfe
b.
Vlof
c.
Vfc
 

 32. 
When must a current pilot certificate be in he pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
a.
When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery
b.
Only when passengers are carried
c.
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember
 

 33. 
In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have
a.
received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
b.
made an logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane.
c.
passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.
 

 34. 
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is
a.
1829
b.
1859
c.
1929
 

 35. 
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane
a.
may be touch and go or full stop.
b.
must be touch and go.
c.
must be to a full stop.
 

 36. 
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
a.
August 31, next year
b.
August 8, 2 years later
c.
August 31, 2 years later
 

 37. 
According to a regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may
a.
not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.
b.
be paid for the operating expenses of a flight.
c.
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
 

 38. 
May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?
a.
Yes, if the flight is only incidental to that business.
b.
Yes, providing the aircraft does not carry a person or property for compensation or hire.
c.
No, it is not allowed.
 

 39. 
With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?
a.
One hour before sunrise
b.
At sunrise
c.
At the beginning of morning civil twilight
 

 40. 
When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?
a.
Anytime the control tower is in operation.
b.
When the ceiling is at least 1, 000 feet and the surface visibility is at least 3 miles.
c.
For the purpose of obtaining an additional certificate or rating while under the supervision of an authorized flight instructor.
 

 41. 
Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?
a.
The buyer pays all the operating expenses.
b.
The flight is not outside the United States.
c.
None.
 

 42. 
When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?
a.
If the pilot has logged 100 hours of flight time in powered aircraft.
b.
If the pilot has an endorsement in his/her pilot logbook from an authorized flight instructor.
c.
It is not allowed.
 

 43. 
When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night?
a.
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 1 statue mile.
b.
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 3 statue miles.
c.
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface or flight visibility is at least 5 statute miles. 
 

 44. 
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
a.
If the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
b.
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
c.
There is no exception.
 

 45. 
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
a.
14 CFR Part 43.7
b.
14 CFR Part 91.403. 
c.
14 CFR Part 61.113
 

 46. 
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
a.
taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
b.
all flight conditions.
c.
flight in turbulent air.
 

 47. 
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10, 000 feet MSL?
a.
200 knots
b.
250 knots
c.
288 knots
 

 48. 
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2, 500 feet AGL and within four nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
a.
200 knots
b.
230 knots
c.
250 knots
 

 49. 
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
a.
200 knots
b.
230 knots
c.
250 knots
 

 50. 
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
a.
180 knots
b.
200 knots
c.
250 knots
 

 51. 
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
a.
Take no special action since you are pilot in command.
b.
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
c.
File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.
 

 52. 
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
a.
Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
b.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
c.
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
 

 53. 
In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
a.
Class G airspace above 1, 500 AGl
b.
Class E airspace below 1, 500 AGL
c.
Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1, 500 feet AGL
 

 54. 
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
a.
1, 000 feet AGL
b.
1, 500 feet AGL
c.
2, 000 feet AGL
 

 55. 
An approved parachute constructed of natural materials must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding
a.
60 days
b.
90 days
c.
120 days
 

 56. 
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
a.
pilot in command
b.
owner or operator
c.
mechanic who performs the work
 

 57. 
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
a.
Repair station.
b.
Certified mechanic.
c.
Owner or operator.
 

 58. 
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 1993. The next inspection will be due no later than
a.
September 30, 1994
b.
September 1, 1994
c.
September 30, 1995
 

 59. 
Which incident requires an immediate notifications be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
a.
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
b.
An in-flight radio communications failure
c.
An in-flight generator or alternator failure
 

 60. 
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
a.
5
b.
7
c.
10
 



 
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